Justin is a 23-year-old male who is being managed for an acute manic

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1.      Justin is a 23-year-old male who is being managed for an acute manic

episode. Justin was diagnosed with bipolar disorder several years ago, but his home life has been unstable and he has not been very adherent to a medication regimen. Most recently he was started on the SNRI venlafaxine by his primary care provider, which he has been taking as prescribed for about 6 weeks, but he began a manic episode a few days ago which peaked this evening. The AGACNP considers that:

A.

The manic episode is probably a result of medication instability and he should continue his current regimen with a follow-up in 6-8 weeks

B.

A mood stabilizing agent should be added to the venlafaxine

C.

All medication should be held for 6-8 weeks and the then the patient should be reevaluated

D.

The SNRI should be stopped and a mood stabilizing agent started

 
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A young-adult male patient was dropped off outside of the emergency

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76.      A young-adult male patient was dropped off outside of the emergency

department and some staff members brought him inside. The patient is restless, irritable, and either unwilling or unable to participate in her own care. No history is available. His vital signs are essentially stable, finger stick blood sugar is 111 mg/dL, there are no signs of trauma, and no physical findings consistent with common drug or alcohol use. A toxicology screen is pending. The AGACNP orders acute psychiatric stabilization with a combination of haloperidol and lorazepam and considers which of the following mediations to decrease the risk of adverse effects?

 
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This question was created from NURS6560-Midterm18.docx

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Question 28
Mr . Key is a 53 -year- old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout
of bacterial pneumonia . He presented as septic and was started immediately on
intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity . Forty eight hours later , he is
much improved clinically and drainage has receded . The next step in his care would be
A . A CT scan
B . Eloesser’s procedure C . Decortication D Reexpansion

 
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This question was created from NURS6560-Midterm18.docx

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This question was created from NURS6560-Midterm18.docx https://www.coursehero.com/file/33955353/NURS6560-Midterm18docx/

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B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture
sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on
beta—adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease
approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets
pain in his chest when he emrts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows:
temperature 98.1”F. pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood
pressure 142.386 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most
important action before FL B. goes to the operating room? AA cardiology consultation B. Blood pressure control C. Resuming beta—adrenergic
antaoonists D. Pain control

 
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