Few years ago I worked on a litigation case where two sides had to find the value of a Mexican bank in early 2000’s
Few years ago I worked on a litigation case where two sides had to
find the value of a Mexican bank in early 2000’s. As a market comparable a plaintiff’s expert used Price/Earnings ratios of Latin American and Spanish banks. Imagine that you are a member of a team of analysts supporting the defendant. What arguments can you advance for and against using the Price/Earnings ratios of Latin American and Spanish banks in this case?
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