Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?
Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct
teaching of physiological effects in the body?
A.
Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.
B.
D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.
C.
D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.
D.
D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
1 points
QUESTION 30
1. Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?
A.
An underlying depressive disorder
B.
The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one
C.
The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic
D.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 31
1. The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
A.
Long-term use of antipsychotics
B.
Genetic disposition
C.
Age
D.
A and C
E.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 32
1. The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes the factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?
A.
Those that are potent D2 antagonists
B.
Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties
C.
D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway
D.
Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors
1 points
QUESTION 33
1. Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?
A.
5HT2 antagonism
B.
D2 antagonism
C.
Alpha-2 antagonism
D.
D2 partial agonist
1 points
QUESTION 34
1. A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?
A.
Norepinephrine
B.
Dopamine
C.
Serotonin
D.
A and C
E.
All of the above
1 points
QUESTION 35
1. Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?
A.
The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.
B.
The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.
C.
The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.
D.
The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.
1 points
QUESTION 36
1. The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?
A.
Patient with a bipolar I designation
B.
Patient with a bipolar II designation
C.
Patient with a bipolar III designation
D.
None of the above
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