Essentials of Strategic Management Ch9

Essentials of Strategic Management Ch9

Question

Ethics, Corporate Social Responsibility, Environmental
Sustainability, and Strategy CH9
1 Business ethics encompasses _______________
A) the application of ethical principles and
standards to business activities, behavior, and decisions.
B) a business commitment to safe products,
high worker compensation, and protection of the environment.
C) conducting oneself appropriately in a
business setting.
D) developing a special set of ethical
standards for businesses to observe in conducting their affairs.
E) picking and choosing among various ethical
standards of society to arrive at a set of ethical standards that apply
directly to operating a business.
2
Ethical principles in business _______________
A) concern the behavioral guidelines a
company’s top management and board of directors set for company personnel
regarding “what is right” and “what is wrong” in conducting
the company’s business.
B)deal chiefly with the actions and behaviors
required to operate companies in a socially responsible manner.
C)are arrived at by picking and choosing among
the consensus ethical standards of society to come up with a set of ethica
standards that apply directly to operating a business.
D)are not materially different from ethical
principles in general and have to be judged in the context of society’s
standards of right and wrong, not by a special set of rules that businesspeople
decide to apply to their own conduct.
E) involve behavioral guidelines for balancing
the interests of nonowner stakeholders (customers, employees, suppliers, and
the communities in which the company has operations) against the interests of
company shareholders.
3 Unethical managerial behavior
tends to be driven by such factors as _______________
A) overzealous or obsessive pursuit of
personal gain, wealth, and other self interests; a company culture that puts
the profitability and good business performance ahead of ethical behavior; and
heavy pressures on company managers to meet or beat performance targets.
B) the lack of a company code of ethics.
C) a lack of training in what is ethical and
what is not.
D) onfusing differences between what is
ethical behavior in one’s personal life and what is ethically permissible in
business.
E) All of the above factors.
4 A company’s strategy needs to be ethical
because _______________
A) of the potential for embarrassment to top
management if the company’s unethical behavior is publicly exposed.
B) unethical strategies are inconsistent with
or else weaken the corporate culture.
C) ethics watchdogs are sure to blow the
whistle on the company’s unethical behavior.
D) of the risks of prosecution by governmental
authorities if an unethical strategy is disclosed.
E) a strategy that is unethical not only
damages the company’s reputation but it also can have costly consequences.
5 Which of the following are consequences of
pursuing a strategy that has unethical or shady components?
A) Government fines and penalties.
B) Legal and investigative costs incurred by
the company.
C) Customer defections.
D) Adverse effects on employee productivity.
E) All of these.
6 Notions of right and wrong, fair and unfair,
moral and immoral, ethical and unethical _______________
A) ultimately depend on a person’s own values
and beliefs.
B) ultimately depend on the
circumstances—nothing is really black or white when it comes to ethical
standards.
C) are governed mainly by religious views held
in different geographic regions of the world.
D) are present in all societies,
organizations, and individuals.
E) vary enormously from country to country
across the world.
7 According to the school of ethical
universalism, _______________
A) what behaviors are “ethically
right” and “ethically wrong” vary across religions, but the
boundaries of what is ethical or not are universal within religions.
B) concepts of right and wrong universally
apply to all business situations within a given country but can vary across
countries or cultures.
C) ethical guidelines exist only when there is
universal agreement as to what behaviors are “ethically right” and
“ethically wrong”; anything not universally viewed as unethical is
thus within the bounds of what is ethically permissible.
D) all societies and countries have some
definition of what is ethically permissible (in this sense ethics are
universal); however, the definitions of what is ethically permissible vary
according to the prevailing religious doctrines in each country.
E) many of the same standards of what’s
ethical and what’s unethical resonate with peoples of most societies regardless
of local traditions and cultural norms—hence, to the extent there is common
moral agreement about right and wrong actions, common ethical standards can be
used to judge the conduct of personnel at companies operating in a variety of
country markets and cultural circumstances.
8 The thesis that because different societies
and cultures have divergent values and standards of what is “ethically
right” and “ethically wrong” it is appropriate to judge behavior
as ethical/unethical in the light of local customs and social mores
_______________
A) is the basis for the theory of ethical
variation.
B) defines what is meant by “integrated
social contracts theory.
C) is a view that characterizes the school of
ethical relativism.
D) accounts for why there is no such thing as
ethical standards for business enterprises.
E) is the reason codes of ethical and social
morality have been established country by country.
9
If one adopts the thinking of the school of ethical relativism,
then _______________
A) there are multiple sets of ethical
standards because what is ethical or unethical depends on local customs and
social mores and can vary from one culture or nation to another.
B) there is a “one-size-fits-all” set
of authentic ethical standards.
C) the preferred set of ethical standards is
the one that society at large has put in place in the form of laws and
regulations.
D) the prevailing ethical standards are the
product of a system of “integrated social contracts.
E) no ethical standards are ever truly
“authentic”—they exist only to the extent that there is a temporary
shared conviction among company managers and company personnel that a
particular behavior is either ethically permissible or ethically impermissible.
10 Companies that adopt the principle of ethical
relativism in providing ethical guidance to company personnel _______________
A) are able to comply with the varying ethical
standards of the world’s different cultures.
B) have no fair way to judge the ethical ness
of the conduct of company personnel.
C) quickly find themselves on a slippery slope
with no ethical standards or principles of their own.
D) have a uniform code of ethical standards
that is applied globally.
E) end up allowing each company employee to
determine what set of ethical standards to observe.
11 According to integrated social contracts
theory, _______________
A) the views and principles of the school of
ethical universalism are definitely wrong; the
view is that ethics is a matter of personal responsibility not a matter
of management concern.
B) the ethical standards a company should try
to uphold are governed both by (1) a limited number of universal ethical
principles that are widely recognized as putting legitimate ethical boundaries
on actions and behavior in all situations and (2) the circumstances of local
cultures, traditions, and shared values that further prescribe what constitutes
ethically permissible behavior and what does not—however, universal ethical
norms take precedence over local ethical norms.
C) the standards of what is ethically
permissible and what is not should be based on a code of ethical and moral
conduct that each society/country/culture adopts and then enacts into law.
D) the standards of what is ethically
permissible should be determined by the terms of an “ethics contract”
that each company employee signs as a condition of employment.
E) the only valid ethical standards are those
that are universal—and then only if the standards are not absolute and provide
some wiggle room according to the circumstances of the each situation.
12 Integrated social contracts theory maintains
that _______________
A) all ethical standards are determined by
societal norms and individuals have an implied social contract to live up to
these standards.
B) “first order” universal ethical
norms always take precedence over “second order” local ethical norms.
C) there should be no absolute limits put on
what is ethically or morally right.
D) few nations or cultures have common moral
agreement on what is ethically right and wrong.
E) each country/culture/society has commonly
held views about what constitutes ethically appropriate actions/behaviors that
all individuals in that country/culture/society are obligated to observe.
13 The costs companies incur when ethical
wrongdoing is discovered and punished do not primarily include_______________
A) the costs to shareholders in the form of a
lower stock price (and possibly lower dividends).
B) he costs of providing remedial education
and ethics training to company personnel.
C) lost employee morale and higher degrees of
employee cynicism.
D) civil penalties arising from class-action
lawsuits and other litigation aimed at punishing the company for its offense
and the harm done to others.
E) increased dividend pay-out to restore the
trust of its shareholders.
14 The theory of corporate social responsibility
concerns _______________
A) a company’s duty to maximize shareholder
value.
B) the blending of shareholder interests and
employee interests.
C) a company’s duty to establish socially
acceptable core values and to have a strictly enforced code of ethical conduct.
D)the responsibility that top management has
for ensuring that the company’s actions and decisions are in the best interest
of society at large.
E) The company’s responsibility to balance
between strategic actions to benefit shareholders against the duty to be a good
corporate citizen.
15 Which of the following is not generally on a
company’s menu of actions to consider in crafting a strategy of social
responsibility?
A) Efforts to employ an ethical strategy and
observe ethical principles in operating the business.
B) Actions to provide suppliers, distributors,
and other value chain partners with handsome profit margins.
C) Making charitable contributions, supporting
community service endeavors, engaging in broader philanthropic initiatives, and
reaching out to make a difference in the lives of the disadvantaged.
D) Actions to build a workforce that is
diverse with respect to gender, race, national origin, and other aspects that
different people bring to the workplace.
E) Actions to protect the environment and, in
particular, to minimize or eliminate any adverse impact on the environment
stemming from the company’s own business activities.
16 The business case for an ethical strategy
_______________
A) focuses primarily on costs that are
difficult to quantify (for example, customer defections and adverse effects on
employee productivity) but can often be the most devastating.
B) emphasizes that pursuing unethical
strategies not only damages a company’s reputation but can also have costly,
wide-ranging consequences.
C) starts with numerous ethical rules and
guidelines and an environment where employees rely on these rules for moral
guidance.
D) starts with managers who understand there
is big difference between adopting values statements and codes of ethics that
serve merely as window dressing and those that truly paint the white lines for
a company’s actual strategy and business conduct.
E) begins with ethical guidelines that help
send the message that management takes the observance of ethical norms
seriously and that behavior falling outside ethical boundaries will have
negative consequences.
17 Environmental sustainability involves
_______________
A) a corporate commitment to address the unmet
noneconomic needs of society.
B) deliberate actions to protect the
environment, provide for the longevity of natural resources, maintain
ecological support systems for future generations, and guard against the
ultimate endangerment of the planet.
C) striking a balance between (1) the economic
responsibility to reward shareholders with profits, (2) the legal
responsibility by the company to laws in countries where it operates, (3) the
ethical responsibility to abide by society’s moral norms, and (4) the
discretionary philanthropic responsibility to contribute to the noneconomic
needs of society.
D) developing the resource strengths necessary
to develop a sustainable competitive advantage.
E) All of these.
18 Companies committed to environmental
sustainability _______________
A) make major contributions to local civic and
charitable organizations.
B) consider the commitment to the environment
as a “first order” priority, commitment to employees as a
“second order” priority, and commitment to shareholders as a
“third order” commitment.
C) believe it is essential to strike a balance
between shareholder interests and the interests of stakeholders such as
suppliers, customers, employees, and the communities in which they operate.
D) develop and market only products that are
“environmentally friendly.
E) adopt sustainable business practices that
meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability to meet the
needs of the future.
19 Which one of the following is not a part of
the business case for why companies should act in a socially responsible
manner?
A) A strong commitment to socially responsible
behavior reduces the risk of reputation-damaging incidents.
B) The aggressive pursuit of market share,
revenues, and profits always puts the company in jeopardy of violating
society’s social responsibility expectations.
C) Conceived social responsibility strategies
work to the advantage of shareholders.
D) Socially responsible actions yield internal
benefits (particularly for employee recruiting, workforce retention, and
training costs) and can improve operational efficiency.
E) Social responsibility actions can lead to
increased buyer patronage.
20 The business case for why companies should act
in a socially responsible manner includes such reasons as _______________
A) improving operational efficiency.
B) avoiding criticism from consumer,
environmental, and human rights activist groups.
C) contributing to lower employee turnover and
better worker productivity.
D) the potential for increased buyer
patronage.
E) All of these.
 
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Essentials of Strategic Management CH8

Essentials of Strategic Management CH8

Question

Corporate Strategy: Diversification and the Multibusiness
Company- CH8
1 Which one of the following is not one of the
elements of crafting corporate strategy for a diversified company?
A) Picking the new industries to enter and
deciding on the means of entry.
B) Initiating actions to boost the combined
performance of the businesses the firm has entered.
C) Standardizing the resource fit across the
group of businesses the company has diversified into.
D) Establishing investment priorities and
steering corporate resources into the most attractive business units.
E) Pursuing opportunities to leverage
cross-business value chain relationships and strategic fits into competitive
advantage.
2 Important reasons for a company to consider
diversification include _______________
A) a desire to avoid putting all of its
“eggs” in one industry basket.
B) diminishing market opportunities and
stagnating sales in its principal business.
C) opportunities to leverage existing
competencies and capabilities by expanding into businesses where these same
resources are key success factors and valuable competitive assets.
D) an opportunity to lower costs by entering
closely related businesses and/or an opportunity to transfer a powerful and
well-respected brand name to the products of other businesses and thereby
increase the sales and profits of these newly entered businesses.
E) All of these.
3 To judge whether a particular diversification
move has good potential for building added shareholder value, the move should
pass the following tests:
A) the attractiveness test, the
barrier-to-entry test, and the growth test.
B) the strategic fit test, the resource fit
test, and the profitability test.
C) the barrier-to-entry test, the growth test,
and the shareholder value test.
D) the attractiveness test, the cost-of-entry
test, and the better-off test.
E) the resource fit test, the strategic fit
test, the profitability test, and the shareholder value test.
4 The better-off test for evaluating whether a
particular diversification move is likely to generate added value for
shareholders involves _______________
A) evaluating whether the diversification move
will produce a 1 + 1 = 3 outcome such that the company’s different businesses
perform better together than apart and the whole ends up being greater than the
sum of the parts.
B) assessing whether the diversification move
will make the company better off by increasing its resources and competitive
capabilities.
C) evaluating whether the diversification move
will make the company better off by making it less subject to the bargaining
power of customers and/or suppliers.
D) assessing whether the diversification move
will make the company better off by increasing its profit margins and returns
on investment.
E) All of these.
5 Which of the following does not accurately
describe entering a new business via acquisition, internal development, or a
joint venture?
A) The big dilemma of entering an industry via
acquisition of an existing company is whether to pay a premium price for a
successful company or to buy a struggling company at a bargain price.
B) Acquisition is generally the most
profitable way to enter a new industry, tends to be more suitable for an
unrelated diversification strategy than a related diversification strategy, and
usually requires less capital than entering an industry via internal start-up.
C) Acquisition is the most popular means of
diversifying into another industry, has the advantage of being quicker than
trying to launch a brand-new operation, and offers an effective way to hurdle
entry barriers.
D) Joint ventures are an attractive way to
enter new businesses when the opportunity is too complex, uneconomical, or
risky for one company to pursue alone, when the opportunities in a new industry
require a broader range of competencies and know-how than a company can marshal
on its own, and/or when it aids entry into a foreign market.
E) The big drawbacks to entering a new
industry via internal development include the costs of overcoming entry
barriers, building an organization from the ground up, and the extra time it takes
to build a strong and profitable competitive position.
6 The defining characteristic of related
diversification (as opposed to unrelated diversification) is _______________
A) that the businesses the company has
diversified into are utilizing similar competitive strategies.
B) the presence of cross-business value chain
relationships and strategic fits.
C) hat each business the company has
diversified into has very similar core competencies and competitive
capabilities.
D) that the company has about the same number
of cash cow businesses as it does cash hog businesses.
E) the existence of cross-industry resource
fits and similar key success factors from industry to industry.
7 The strategic appeal of related
diversification is that _______________
A)it allows a firm to rap the competitive
advantage benefits of skills transfer, lower costs (due to economies of scope),
cross-business use of a powerful brand name, and/or cross-business
collaboration in creating stronger competitive capabilities.
B) it is less capital intensive than unrelated
diversification because related diversification emphasizes getting into cash
cow businesses (as opposed to cash hog businesses).
C) it involves diversifying into industries
having the same kinds of key success factors.
D) it is less risky than unrelated
diversification because it avoids the acquisition of cash hog businesses.
E) it facilitates the achievement of greater
economies of scale since the company only enters those businesses that serve the
same types of buyer groups and/or buyer needs.
8 Which of the following is the best example of
related diversification?
A) A manufacturer of golf shoes diversifying
into the production of fishing rods and fishing lures.
B) A homebuilder acquiring a building
materials retailer.
C)A steel producer acquiring a manufacturer of
farm equipment.
D)A producer of snow skis and ski boots
acquiring a maker of ski apparel and accessories (outerwear, goggles, gloves
and mittens, helmets and toboggans).
E) A publisher of college textbooks acquiring
a publisher of magazines.
9 Economies of scope _______________
A) stem from the cost-saving efficiencies of
scattering a company’s manufacturing/assembly plants over a wider geographic
area.
B) have to do with the cost-saving
efficiencies of operating across a bigger portion of an industry’s total value
chain.
C) stem from cost-saving strategic fits along
the value chains of related businesses.
D) refer to the cost savings that flow from
being able to combine the value chains of different businesses into a single
value chain.
E) are like economies of scale and arise from
being able to lower costs via a larger volume operation.
10 Cross-business strategic fits can exist
_______________
A) in the R&D and technology portion of
the value chains of related businesses.
B) in the supply chain portion of the value
chains of related businesses.
C) in the manufacturing or production portions
of the value chains of related businesses.
D) in the sales and marketing portion of the
value chains of related businesses.
E) All of the above; cross-business strategic
fits can exist anywhere along the values chains of related businesses.
11 The defining characteristic of unrelated
diversification (as opposed to related diversification) is _______________
A) the presence of cross-business resource fit
(whereas the defining characteristic of related diversification is the presence
of cross-business strategic fit).
B) that the value chains of different
businesses are so dissimilar that no competitively valuable cross-business
relationships are present (in other words, the value chains of a company’s
businesses offer no opportunities to benefit from skills or technology transfer
across businesses, economies of scope, cross-business use of a powerful brand name,
and/or cross-business collaboration in creating stronger competitive
capabilities).
C) the presence of cross-business strategic
fit (whereas the defining characteristic of related diversification is the
presence of cross-business resource fit).
D) that the company’s businesses are in
different industries.
E) the presence of cross-business financial
fit.
12 Which one of the following is not part of the
task of critiquing a diversified company’s strategy, assessing its business
makeup, and deciding how to improve overall company performance?
A) Checking whether each business a company
has diversified into can pass the profitability test, the capital gains test,
the growh rate test, and the resources test.
B) Checking for strategic fit and resource
fit.
C) Ranking the performance prospects of the
businesses from best to worst and determining what the corporate parent’s
priority should be in allocating resources to its various businesses.
D) Assessing the attractiveness of the
industries the company has diversified into, both individually and as a group.
E) Assessing the competitive strength of the
company’s business units and determining how many are strong contenders in
their respective industries.
13 Calculating quantitative attractiveness
ratings for the industries a company has diversified into involves
_______________
A) determining the strength of the five
competitive forces in each industry, calculating the ability of the company to
overcome or contend successfully with each force, and obtaining overall
measures of the firm’s ability to compete successfully in each of its
industries.
B) determining each industry’s average profit
margins, calculating how far the firm’s profit margins are above/below the
industry averages, and then using these values to draw conclusions about
industry attractiveness.
C) rating the attractiveness of each
industry’s strategic and resource fit, summing the attractiveness scores, and
determining whether the overall scores for the industries as a group are
appealing or not.
D) selecting a set of industry attractiveness
measures, weighting the importance of each measure (with the sum of the weights
adding to 1.0), rating each industry on each attractiveness measure,
multiplying the industry ratings by the assigned weight to obtain a weighted
rating, adding the weighted ratings for each industry to obtain an overall
industry attractiveness score, and using the overall industry attractiveness
scores to evaluate the attractiveness of all the industries, both individually
and as a group.
E) identifying each industry’s average price, rating
the difficulty of charging an above-average price in each industry, and
deciding whether the company’s prospects for being able to charge above-average
prices make the industry attractive or unattractive.
14 The basic purpose of calculating competitive
strength scores for each of a diversified company’s business units is to
_______________
A) determine which business unit has the
greatest number of resources, competencies, and competitive capabilities and
which one has the least.
B) assess how strongly positioned each
business unit is in its industry and the extent to which it already is or can
become a strong market contender.
C) rank each business unit’s strategic fit
from highest to lowest.
D) rank each business unit’s resource fit from
highest to lowest.
E) rank each business unit’s strategy from
best to worst.
15 The nine-cell industry
attractiveness-competitive strength matrix _______________
A) is a valuable tool for ranking a company’s
different businesses from best to worst based on strategic fit.
B) shows which of a diversified company’s
businesses have good/poor resource fit.
C) indicates which businesses have the
highest/lowest economies of scale and which have the highest/lowest economies
of scope.
D) uses quantitative measures of industry
attractiveness and competitive strength to plot each business’s location on the
matrix—the thesis underlying the matrix is that there are good reasons to
concentrate the company’s resources on those businesses having relatively
strong competitive positions in industries with relatively high attractiveness
and to invest minimally or even divest those businesses with relatively weak
competitive positions in industries with relatively low attractiveness.
E) pinpoints which of a diversified company’s
businesses are resource-rich cash cows and which are resource-poor cash hogs.
16 Checking a diversified company’s business
lineup for the competitive advantage potential of cross-business strategic fits
involves searching for and evaluating how much benefit a diversified company
can gain from value chain matchups that present _______________
A) opportunities to combine the performance of
certain activities, thereby reducing costs and capturing economies of scope.
B) opportunities to transfer skills,
technology, or intellectual capital from one business to another, thereby
leveraging use of existing resources.
C) opportunities to share use of a
well-respected brand name.
D) opportunities for sister businesses to
collaborate in creating valuable new competitive capabilities (such as enhanced
supply chain management capabilities, quicker first-to-market capabilities, or
greater product innovation capabilities).
E) All of the above.
17 Checking a diversified company’s business
lineup for resource fit does not involve which one of the following “tests”?
A) Determining whether a company has or can
develop the specific resources and competitive capabilities needed to be
successful in each of its businesses.
B) Determining whether recently acquired
businesses are acting to strengthen the company’s resource base and competitive
capabilities or whether they are causing its competitive and managerial
resources to be stretched too thin.
C) Determining whether each business
adequately contributes to achieving companywide performance targets.
D) Determining whether the company has enough
cash hog businesses to supply capital to its cash cow businesses.
E) Determining whether the company has
adequate financial strength to fund the needs of its various businesses and
maintain a healthy credit rating.
18 Ranking a diversified company’s businesses in
terms of priority for resource allocation and new capital investment
_______________
A) should be done chiefly on the basis of
appealing industry attractiveness and resource fit and secondarily on the basis
of competitive strength and strategic fit with other businesses.
B) entails arraying the various businesses
from the biggest cash hog down to the biggest cash cow; big cash hogs get the
highest priority for resource allocation and big cash cows get the lowest
priority.
C) should be done principally on the basis of
which businesses offer the best prospects (given their industry attractiveness
and competitive strength) and, also, have solid and appealing strategic fits
and resource fits.
D) should be based chiefly on relative market
share, recent profitability, and potential for achieving cash cow status.
E) should be based primarily on cross-business
resource fit considerations, each business unit’s relative market share, and
each business’s projected ability to cover its debt payments and generate
positive cash flows.
19 Once a firm has diversified and established
itself in several different businesses, then its main strategic alternatives
include all but which one of the following?
A) Broadening the firm’s business scope by
diversifying into additional businesses.
B) Shifting from a multiple-country to a
global strategy.
C) Restructuring the company’s business lineup
with a combination of divestitures and new acquisitions to put a whole new face
on the company’s business makeup.
D) Sticking closely with the existing business
lineup and pursuing the opportunities these businesses present.
E) Divesting some businesses and retrenching
to a narrower base of business operations.
20 Corporate restructuring strategies
_______________
A) focus on broadening the scope of
diversification to include a larger number of businesses and boost the
company’s growth and profitability.
B) involve rightsizing the company’s labor
force to reduce the costs of salaries and benefits.
C) are directed at achieving a 1 + 1 = 3
effect from the company’s diversification strategy.
D) focus on crafting initiatives to restore a
diversified company’s money-losing businesses to profitability.
E) involve making radical changes in a
diversified company’s business lineup, divesting some businesses and acquiring
new ones so as to put a new face on the company’s business lineup.
 
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mgt306 Final Assignment-Submit Small Business Plan Assignment latest 2017 december

mgt306 Final Assignment-Submit Small Business Plan Assignment latest 2017 december

Question

Final Assignment –
Submit Small Business Plan Assignment
Business Plan Assignment
Everyone will have the opportunity to create a Business Plan
proposal for a new or existing business, product, or service line. It is
understood that 8 weeks is not enough time to develop a comprehensive plan, and
a fictional plan is perfectly acceptable under these circumstances. The idea
here is to practice creating a plan and understanding the steps necessary for
submitting a successful Business Plan. The plan does not have to be for a new
business; it can include the following:
An existing business you may like to buy
Creating a new department or division in an existing company
Developing a new product or service for an existing company
(in essence you would be creating a new deparatment or division that would
essentially start from the ground-up)
Other ideas you have with permission of the instructor
Many students take this opportunity to develop a plan for a
business they would like to start part-time now, in the near future, or once
they retire. This is perfectly
acceptable and certainly encouraged. The
idea is to get you excited about the process and possibility of actually using
this research you will perform, for the actual plan once the time is right.
Attached to this section is reference material that will help you better
understand the structure and content of the Business Plan. Although very comprehensive, it is understood
that the expectations for emulating these plans are significantly lowered for
this course.
It is important to address each element of the Business Plan
in your proposal, and the text does a great job in explaining this process. If
you have any questions about any of the steps, please contact me for
assistance. There are also discussion board questions specifically designed to help
you navigate this process. You will have the opportunity to discuss your
progress with other students and benchmark your progress.
Your business plan will be graded according to the following
rubric:
Business Plan Rubric

Task Point Value (out of 100)
Proper
APA format, spelling, grammar, citations and references
20
points
Proper
use of terms and concepts from the course – minimum 5 researched articles for
background all within past 5 years
30
points
Insights
from and application of course material
30
points
Practical
application of course concepts – personal reflection on learning outcomes as
they relate to this project
20
points
 
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BUSi690 week 4 Business Model Generation Exercise 1

BUSi690 week 4 Business Model Generation Exercise 1

Question

Business Model Generation Exercise
1 Instructions
In the first 3 chapters of the
Business Model Generation (Osterwalder and Pigneur) book, the authors describe
and analyze the canvas, patterns, and design of successful business models.
After carefully reading and understanding these chapters, answer these research
questions:
· RQ1 What is a Business Model? At least
2 paragraphs.
· RQ2 According to the Business Model
Generation and/or Strategic Management Concepts and Cases literature, what is a
business model? (Discuss/analyze well beyond a definition). You will need at
least 2 scholarly articles and subsequent write-up.
· RQ3 What role do value propositions
perform in successful business models? This must be at least 2 paragraphs.
· RQ4 How does “Brainstorming New
Business Models” by answering the “What If” questions impact successful
businesses? This must be at least 2 paragraphs.
Deliverables:
· This assignment must be in a business
professional format with a cover page in current APA format and must contain at
least 600–800 words. This assignment must also include current APA citations
and references.
· You must post the final draft of this
assignment in Blackboard using the SafeAssign link provided. Before submitting
your final draft, check for any plagiarism issues with the SafeAssign Draft
link provided. NOTE: All SafeAssign scores must be less than 28%.
Submit this assignment by 11:59
p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 4.
Business Model Generation Exercise
1
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Points
Earned
Proficient
Competent
Novice
RQ1 (2 Paragraphs)
8 to 10 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
main topic. It includes several supporting details and/or examples.
6 to 7 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
RQ. No details and/or examples are given.
0 to 5 points
Analysis has little or no relation
to the RQ.
RQ2
8 to 10 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
main topic. It includes several supporting details and/or examples.
6 to 7 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
RQ. No details and/or examples are given.
0 to 5 points
Analysis has little or no relation
to the RQ.
RQ2 – Scholarly Research
13 to 15 points
RQs were thoroughly addressed with
scholarly research.
10 to 12 points
RQs are generally, but not
comprehensively, addressed with scholarly research.
0 to 9 points
RQs were not addressed
satisfactorily with scholarly research.
RQ3 (2 Paragraphs)
8 to 10 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
main topic. It includes several supporting details and/or examples.
6 to 7 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
RQ. No details and/or examples are given.
0 to 5 points
Analysis has little or no relation
to the RQ.
RQ4 (2 Paragraphs)
8 to 10 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
main topic. It includes several supporting details and/or examples.
6 to 7 points
Analysis clearly relates to the
RQ. No details and/or examples are given.
0 to 5 points
Analysis has little or no relation
to the RQ
Current APA Format
8 to 10 points
All sources (information and
graphics) were accurately documented in current APA format.
3 to 7 points
Learning Assignment was accurately
documented, but some are not in current APA format.
0 to 2 points
Learning Assignment was not
accurately documented or formatted.
Criteria
Levels of Achievement
Points
Earned
Proficient
Competent
Novice
Mechanics
8 to 10 points
Minimal or no grammatical,
spelling, or punctuation errors.
3 to 7 points
A few grammatical, spelling, or
punctuation errors.
0 to 2 points
Many grammatical, spelling, or
punctuation errors.
 
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